Medicine College
Answers
Answer 1
Answer: Please Mark as brainlest.
Explanation:
The leukotriene receptor antagonists include zafirlukast (Accolate) and montelukast (Singulair); zileuton (Zyflo) is the only leukotriene synthesis inhibitor (Table 1).
Related Questions
a client in acute kidney injury has marked decrease in renal blood flow caused by hypovolemia, the result of gastrointestinal bleeding. the nurse is aware that this form of acute kidney injujry can be reversed if the bleeding is under control. which form of acute kidney injury does this client have?
Answers
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition that develops quickly, typically over hours or days. The kidneys lose their ability to filter waste items from the blood as a result of the damage, which can cause several health problems.
Kidney injury is defined as a rapid (over hours or days) decrease in kidney function, resulting in an accumulation of nitrogenous waste materials such as urea and creatinine that are usually excreted by the kidneys. This buildup of waste can lead to electrolyte imbalances, changes in acid-base balance, and fluid overload, among other things. AKI has a high risk of complications, including permanent kidney damage, end-stage kidney disease (ESKD), and death.The three main causes of AKI are pre-renal, intrinsic, and post-renal.
Pre-renal acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition in which there is a significant decrease in renal blood flow that is caused by extrarenal events that disrupt the renal blood supply but do not harm the kidney tissue itself, such as hypovolemia (as in this scenario), hypotension, or hypoperfusion. Pre-renal AKI can be reversed if the underlying cause is resolved, allowing for the return of normal blood flow to the kidneys, as stated in the student's question.
Post-renal acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition in which the kidneys are damaged as a result of an obstruction in the urinary tract below the kidneys, while intrinsic AKI is a condition in which the kidneys themselves are damaged due to a primary kidney disease, such as glomerulonephritis, acute tubular necrosis (ATN), or interstitial nephritis.
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Beta blockers (beta receptor antagonists) decrease blood pressure by decreasing: 1) cardiac output 2) peripheral resistance 3) blood volume
Answers
Answer:
1
Explanation:
Beta blockers work by blocking the effects of the hormone epinephrine, also known as adrenaline. Beta blockers cause the heart to beat more slowly and with less force, which lowers blood pressure.
Beta-blockers also decrease blood pressure via several mechanisms, including decreased renin and reduced cardiac output.
Beta-blockers (beta receptor antagonists) decrease blood pressure by decreasing cardiac output and peripheral resistance.
Thus, the correct options are 2 and 3.
Betа-blockers work by blocking the effects of epinephrine, аlso known аs аdrenаline. By blocking the effects of epinephrine, betа-blockers cаn reduce the heаrt rаte аnd force of contrаction, which decreаses cаrdiаc output.
Аdditionаlly, betа blockers cаn cаuse the blood vessels to dilаte, which decreаses peripherаl resistаnce. By reducing both cаrdiаc output аnd peripherаl resistаnce, betа blockers cаn effectively lower blood pressure. It is importаnt to note thаt betа blockers do not directly decreаse blood volume, аlthough they cаn indirectly аffect blood volume by reducing the аmount of fluid the body retаins.
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the home health nurse is providing long-term care to several clients. which are examples of inappropriately crossing professional boundaries? select all that apply.
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It is essential for a home health nurse to maintain professional boundaries to ensure effective and ethical care for their clients.
Some examples of inappropriately crossing professional boundaries when providing long-term care to several clients include:
Sharing personal information about the client with family or friends.
Creating a romantic or sexual relationship with the client.
Expecting or accepting expensive gifts or tips from clients.
Sharing personal information about oneself with clients.
Sharing opinions or beliefs about religion, politics, or other sensitive topics with clients.
Inviting clients to social events or outings beyond professional boundaries.
Exceeding professional responsibilities, such as offering to run errands or perform personal tasks for clients.
Examples of inappropriately crossing professional boundaries in a home health nurse providing long-term care include:
1. Engaging in personal or intimate relationships with clients.
2. Sharing personal information, problems, or emotions with clients.
3. Accepting gifts or favors from clients.
4. Spending excessive time with a particular client outside of care duties.
5. Providing care or services that are outside the scope of nursing practice.
It is essential for a home health nurse to maintain professional boundaries to ensure effective and ethical care for their clients.
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riser the nurse provides discharge teaching to a client who had total hip replacement 4 days ago. which client statement indicates that additional teaching is necessary?
Answers
A client statement that indicates additional teaching is necessary after a total hip replacement 4 days ago would be one that shows a lack of understanding or adherence to the recommended post-operative care guidelines.
Total hip replacement is major surgery, and proper post-operative care is crucial for optimal healing and preventing complications. Some key points that should be understood by the client include:
1. Movement and weight-bearing limitations: The client should be aware of any restrictions on bending, twisting, or weight-bearing activities. They should also know the appropriate use of assistive devices, such as crutches or a walker.
2. Pain management: The client should understand how to take prescribed medications for pain control and be aware of potential side effects.
3. Wound care: The client should know how to care for the surgical incision, including keeping it clean and dry, and recognizing signs of infection.
4. Physical therapy: The importance of attending physical therapy sessions to regain strength and mobility should be emphasized.
5. Activity restrictions: The client should understand any specific activities that are off-limits during the recovery period, such as high-impact sports or activities that put excessive strain on the hip joint.
6. Follow-up appointments: The client should be aware of the need for follow-up visits with their healthcare provider to monitor progress and address any concerns.
If the client's statement shows a lack of understanding or adherence to these essential aspects of post-operative care, it indicates that additional teaching is necessary to ensure a successful recovery after total hip replacement surgery.
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The benign skin growth that has a waxy or "pasted-on" look and occurs more commonly among the elderly is known as seborrheic called____
Answers
Answer:
Keratosis
Explanation:
The benign skin growth that has a waxy or "pasted-on" look and occurs more commonly among the elderly is known as seborrheic keratosis
the health care provider has prescribed an aminoglycoside (gentamicin) for a client. which complication is the client is at risk for?
Answers
The client prescribed an aminoglycoside (gentamicin) is at risk for complications such as nephrotoxicity (kidney damage) and ototoxicity (hearing loss). It is essential for the healthcare provider to monitor the client for these potential side effects.
The gentamicin can have a serious side effect on kidneys, and one of the complications is nephrotoxicity. The adverse reactions of gentamicin include kidney damage, anaphylactic reactions, and neuromuscular blockade. Kidney function tests should be performed to detect any adverse effects of the drug on kidney function. An aminoglycoside antibiotic is a type of medication used to treat infections.
Aminoglycosides are potent antibiotics that are commonly prescribed in hospitals. Gentamicin is one of the most widely used aminoglycosides. This drug is primarily used to treat bacterial infections. It is frequently administered intravenously (IV) or by injection into a muscle (IM).The side effects of aminoglycosides include: Allergic reaction, Nephrotoxicity , Ototoxicity , Myasthenia gravis should be avoided Gastrointestinal effects are caused by the drug Gastrointestinal bleeding can occur in rare cases.
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the nurse is conducting a skin assessment on a client who suffered a burn injury. the client's wound exhibits rapid capillary refill, is moist, red, and painful. what depth of burn should the nurse document?
Answers
the nurse should document the burn as a superficial partial-thickness burn, also known as a second-degree burn. The characteristics of rapid capillary refill, moist, red skin, and pain are indicative of this type of burn injury.
When conducting a skin assessment on a client who has suffered a burn injury and whose wound exhibits rapid capillary refill, is moist, red, and painful, the nurse should document the depth of the burn as second-degree burn.
A second-degree burn is a burn that affects the entire epidermis and may extend to the dermis. The skin is pink to red, moist, and blisters may appear. This sort of burn is extremely painful because the nerve endings are exposed.A deep partial-thickness burn is another term for a second-degree burn. When the entire dermis is burned, a deep partial-thickness burn occurs.
Blisters may appear, and the wound is wet and red. This burn is quite painful since it affects the nerves. The nurse should document it as second-degree burn.
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what are the most common side effects of propranolol?
Answers
The main side effects of propranolol are feeling dizzy or tired, cold hands or feet, difficulties sleeping and nightmares. These side effects are usually mild and short-lived
the nursing instructor asks the nursing student to plan and conduct a clinical conference on phenylketonuria (pku). the student researches the topic and plans to include which information in the conference?
Answers
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder that prevents the body from properly breaking down an amino acid called phenylalanine.
If untreated, phenylalanine can accumulate in the blood and lead to intellectual disability, behavioral problems, and other serious health issues. The nursing conference should cover the etiology, pathophysiology, clinical manifestations, diagnosis, and treatment of PKU.
It should also emphasize the importance of early detection through newborn screening and adherence to a low-phenylalanine diet, as well as the role of nurses in managing the condition and educating patients and families about it. Finally, the conference should address the psychological, social, and developmental implications of living with PKU.
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the cells lining the stomach metabolize _____ of alcohol consumed.
Answers
Answer:
About 20%
Explanation:
Some day between 10-30%
The drugs most often associated with addiction and impairment are _____drugs
Answers
Answer:
Psychoactive drugs
Explanation:
The drugs most often associated with addiction and impairment are psychoactive drugs—those that alter a person's experiences or consciousness.
when a patient presents for a screening test and the provider finds something abnormal, what diagnosis code should be sequenced first? refer to icd-10-cm guideline i.c.21.c.5.
Answers
When a patient presents for a screening test and the provider finds something abnormal, the diagnosis code that should be sequenced first, according to ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.21.c.5, is the code for the abnormal finding.
Screening tests are designed to identify potential health issues before they become serious problems, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. When an abnormal finding is discovered during a screening test, it is important to accurately code and document the diagnosis in order to provide appropriate care for the patient.
The ICD-10-CM (International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification) is a system used by healthcare providers to classify and code all diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures recorded in conjunction with hospital care in the United States. The guidelines in the ICD-10-CM help ensure that healthcare providers use consistent and accurate codes when documenting patient information.
In summary, when a patient presents for a screening test and an abnormal finding is discovered, the first diagnosis code should be the code for the abnormal finding, as specified by ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.21.c.5.
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the nurse notes that in addition to the pain, the client's foot is cool and pale. what additional focused assessment should the nurse perform? (select all that apply. one, some, or all options may be correct.)
Answers
Toe movement is additional focused assessment should the nurse perform.
Elaborating:
The "5 Ps" of neurovascular assessment are included. They are paralysis, pallor, pulse, pain, and paresthesia. Changes indicate that the blood vessels and nerves that supply the extremity that is distal to the cast or injury are under more pressure.
Assess peripheral pulses:
The nurse should assess the peripheral pulses, such as dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses, in the affected foot to determine if they are present, weak or absent.
Check capillary refill:
The nurse should assess the capillary refill time of the toes in the affected foot, which should be less than 3 seconds in a normal, healthy individual.
Evaluate skin temperature:
The nurse should assess the skin temperature of the affected foot, comparing it to the other foot and noting if it is cooler.
Assess skin color:
The nurse should assess the skin color of the affected foot, comparing it to the other foot, and noting if it is pale or bluish in color.
Evaluate sensory function:
The nurse should assess the sensory function of the foot by testing for numbness or tingling.
These assessments will help the nurse to identify the underlying cause of the decreased blood flow and provide appropriate interventions to improve blood flow and prevent further complications.
Question incomplete:
The nurse notes that in addition to the pain Madison's foot is cool and pale with capillary refill of 5 seconds. What additional assessment should the nurse perform?
A. Deep tendon reflexes.
B. Toe movement.
C. Skin turgor.
D. Lack of hair growth.
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a pregnant woman in her 39th week of pregnancy presents to the clinic with a vaginal infection. she tests positive for chlamydia. what would this disease make her infant at risk for?
Answers
If a pregnant woman in her 39th week of pregnancy presents to the clinic with a vaginal infection and tests positive for chlamydia, her infant is at risk for several complications, including conjunctivitis (pink eye) and pneumonia.
These infections can occur if the infant is exposed to the chlamydia bacteria during delivery, as the bacteria can be present in the birth canal. The infant may also be at increased risk of preterm labor and low birth weight. Therefore, it is important for the pregnant woman to receive appropriate treatment for chlamydia to prevent these potential complications and ensure the health of both herself and her infant.
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according to the excerpt, what is one of the major problems in detecting ad?
Answers
the answer is: By the time doctors are able to detect AD, the disease has already progressed significantly.
Reasons for preserving biodiversity include all of the following expect?
a. Isolating unique genetic material so it can be incorporated into existing crop
b. Increasing the chances of discovering organisms with medicinal value
c. Preventing natural evolution
d. Finding new plants that can supplement the worlds supply
Answers
The reasons for preserving biodiversity include all of the following expect Preventing natural evolution. Therefore the correct option is option C.
Preserving biodiversity means to save the number of diverse species and natural habitats. Biodiversity refers to the number of different species living in an ecosystem, with each species having its own unique features and functions.
It is critical to maintaining the equilibrium of life on the planet by ensuring that all organisms are in balance with their surroundings.
Biodiversity conservation has the following advantages: It aids in the discovery of new medicine .Oxygen is produced through photosynthesis, which is an essential component of the air we breathe. Biodiversity enhances water and soil quality. Plants that are resistant to pests and diseases can be used for food production.
The preservation of biodiversity aids in the maintenance of healthy ecosystems. It also contributes to the conservation of wildlife and the habitats in which they live.
Therefore the correct option is option C.
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Most People lied without reason. According Dr. Shun Muphy, He said there are 7 reasons or more for lying. What are the reasons?
Answers
Explanation:
To make themselves look good
To make someone feel good
To protect someone
To hide criminal activity
To get what they want
To avoid something (punishment, a task/event/situation, embarrassment)
Or...they're just liars
A school-aged child with cystic fibrosis has recurrent episodes of bronchitis, and the parents ask the nurse why this happens. What reason should the nurse include in the reply?
Answers
Answer:
Cystic fibrosis affects the cells that produce mucus, sweat, and digestive juices. It causes these fluids to become thick and sticky. They then plug up tubes, ducts, and passageways. This provides an environment for bacterial to grow.
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis affects the cells that produce mucus, sweat, and digestive juices. It causes these fluids to become thick and sticky. They then plug up tubes, ducts, and passageways. This provides an environment for bacterial to grow.
a client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. the nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above which value?
Answers
The nurse should monitor the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above 90%.
Oxygen saturation is a measure of the percentage of hemoglobin in the blood that is carrying oxygen. Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive method of measuring oxygen saturation and is commonly used in clinical settings, particularly in postoperative care. While oxygen saturation levels of 95% to 100% are considered normal, a level of 90% or above is generally acceptable for most patients without a history of respiratory disease.
However, the healthcare provider may set a specific target oxygen saturation level for the patient based on individual factors such as age, medical history, and surgical procedure. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to monitor the pulse oximeter readings and follow the healthcare provider's orders regarding oxygen therapy to maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent complications.
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You run a pcr reaction amplifying a portion of the human insulin gene and view your results on an agarose gel. you successfully amplify of a 1150 bp region of that gene that you had targeted. how was that 1150 bp region determined?
Answers
The region the DNA that will be replicated or amplified by the primers the experimenter selects will be determined in a PCR reaction. The 20 nucleotide-long PCR primers are brief fragments of single-stranded DNA.
In a nutshell, what is DNA?
The genetic material in humans but almost all other species is called DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid. A person's body contains nearly identical DNA in every cell.
What is DNA so special?
Deoxyribonucleic acid is the name given to DNA because of its structure. The deoxyribose component of the nucleic acid contains pentose sugar, while the phosphate backbone of the nucleic acid contains bases including adenine, cytosine, guanine, et thymine. Deoxyribose lacks the -OH group in the sugar ring's second position.
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the ______-soluble vitamins are more readily stored in the body than ______-soluble vitamins.
Answers
the answer is : fat , water
bleeding from the nose that may be caused by dry air, injury, medication to prevent blood clotting, or high blood pressure is called____
Answers
Answer:
Epistaxis
Explanation:
Epistaxis: Medical term for nosebleed. The nose is a part of the body that is very rich in blood vessels (vascular) and is situated in a vulnerable position on the face. As a result, any trauma to the face can cause bleeding, which may be profuse.
________- is the study of the nonphysical aspects of the aging process.
Answers
Gerontology is the study of the nonphysical aspects of the aging process.
Gerontology is the study of the nonphysical aspects of aging, such as psychological and social changes, how aging is experienced, and how societies view and treat the elderly. It is a multidisciplinary field that draws upon sociology, psychology, anthropology, economics, epidemiology, and public health to better understand the aging process and its implications for individuals and societies.
Gerontology studies the biological, psychological, social, and cultural changes associated with aging, as well as the impact that these changes have on individuals and societies. This includes research into the physiological changes associated with aging, the physical and mental health of the elderly, and the effects of aging on family relationships, communities, and the environment. It also looks at the effects of social policies and programs designed to help the elderly and their families.
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the nurse is teaching a client who is recovering from an abdominal-perineal resection with a colostomy about health promotion. what is an expected outcome for a client during the first 2 weeks after surgery?
Answers
An expected outcome for a client during the first 2 weeks after abdominal-perineal resection with a colostomy would be to achieve effective colostomy care and management.
The nurse should provide education on stoma care, including how to properly clean and change the ostomy bag, how to manage output consistency and odor, and how to maintain skin integrity around the stoma site.
The nurse should also monitor the client for any signs of complications, such as infection, skin breakdown, or stoma prolapse. The client should also be encouraged to gradually increase activity levels and maintain a balanced diet to promote healing and prevent complications.
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you are the only bls provider responding to witnessed collapse of a 11-year-old child during a softball game. the scene is safe, and you have taken standard precautions. the patient is unresponsive and gasping occasionally. you do not feel a carotid pulse and an aed is within sight. what should you do?
Answers
In this situation, the first step is to start the basic life support (BLS) sequence, which consists of the following steps: Check for responsiveness, Activate the emergency response system, Check for breathing, Start chest compressions & Use an AED.
Check for responsiveness: Shake or tap the child's shoulder and ask loudly, "Are you okay?" If there is no response, the child is unresponsive.
Activate the emergency response system: Call for help and tell the dispatcher that you have an unresponsive child who is not breathing.
Check for breathing: Look, listen, and feel for any signs of breathing. If the child is not breathing or only gasping occasionally, start chest compressions.
Use an AED: If an AED is available, turn it on and follow the prompts. If the AED advises a shock, make sure that everyone is clear of the child before pressing the shock button.
Overall, In this specific scenario, since there is no carotid pulse and the child is unresponsive, start chest compressions immediately.
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Should students should learn inflectional suffixes such as and before learning derivational suffixes like and?
Answers
Yes, it is generally recommended that students learn inflectional suffixes before learning derivational suffixes.
What is the difference between inflectional and derivational suffixes?
Inflectional suffixes are used to modify the tense, number, or degree of a word and do not change the word's meaning or part of speech. Examples of inflectional suffixes include -s (marks plurality on nouns), -ed (marks past tense on regular verbs), and -er (marks comparative degree on adjectives).
Derivational suffixes, on the other hand, are used to create new words or change the part of speech of a word. Examples of derivational suffixes include -ness (changes an adjective into a noun), -able (creates an adjective from a verb), and -ify (creates a verb from a noun).
By learning inflectional suffixes first, students gain a foundation for understanding how suffixes modify words and the rules for using them. Once they have mastered the basics of inflectional suffixes, they can then move on to learning derivational suffixes, which require a more advanced understanding of word structure and meaning.
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Which characteristic is LEAST likely to apply to a fat-soluble vitamin? a. toxic in excess b. dissolves in lipids c. requires bile for absorption d. easily ...
Answers
The characteristic that is LEAST likely to apply to a fat-soluble vitamin is easily excreted in urine. The correct option is D
What is fat-soluble vitamin ?
Fat-soluble vitamins are a group of vitamins that are soluble in fat and other lipids.
There are four fat-soluble vitamins such as :
Vitamin A Vitamin DVitamin EVitamin K
These vitamins are stored in the body's fatty tissues and liver and are not excreted easily in urine like water-soluble vitamins.
They also require bile for proper absorption in the small intestine and are stored in fatty tissues and the liver. However, they are not easily excreted in urine like water-soluble vitamins, and can accumulate in the body's fatty tissues, which can lead to toxicity in excessive amounts. Therefore, option a. toxic in excess is a common characteristic of fat-soluble vitamins.
Therefore the correct option is D
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a client reports abdominal pain and vomiting for 24 hours. the client's blood pressure is 98/48 mm hg. the client is diagnosed with large-bowel obstruction. what is the priority nursing diagnosis for the client?
Answers
The priority nursing diagnosis for the client would be "Decreased Cardiac Output related to Hypotension."
The client's blood pressure of 98/48 mm Hg is considered low and indicates decreased cardiac output, which can be caused by a large-bowel obstruction. If left untreated, decreased cardiac output can lead to inadequate tissue perfusion and potentially life-threatening complications.
Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's blood pressure and cardiac output closely and implement interventions to improve cardiac function and tissue perfusion, such as administering IV fluids and medications to increase blood pressure, and closely monitoring for signs of shock. The nurse should also closely monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte balance and address any imbalances promptly.
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a client has an intracapsular hip fracture. the nurse should conduct a focused assessment to detect which change near the fracture?
Answers
If the client has an intracapsular hip fracture, the nurse should conduct a focused assessment to detect shortening of the leg near the affected leg.
Hip fractures can occur either inside (intracapsular) or outside (extracapsular) of the portion of the femur covered by the ligamentous hip joint capsule (extracapsular).
Around the location where the capsule of the hip joint connects to the femur, intracapsular fractures take place. Fractures outside of the capsule of the hip joint take place there. "Subtrochanteric" fracture is used when the fracture line is below the lesser trochanter.
The primary biological issues with intracapsular fractures are the vascularization of the femoral head and the absence of periosteum in the femoral neck, which is essential for fracture repair. Contrarily, the issue with extracapsular fractures is mechanical and has to do with load-bearing.
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because of the low pressure in the pulmonary circuit, blood flows more quickly through the pulmonary capillaries, and therefore it has less time for gas exchange. True or False?
Answers
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The statement isn't true